Certified Tester Foundation Level - ISTQB Foundation Sample Quiz 3

Questions
Q1: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Which of the following is a typical test objective?
A Initiating errors and identifying root causes
B Verifying the test object meets user expectations
C Causing failures and identifying defects
D Validating that documented requirements are met
Correct Answer:
C : Causing failures and identifying defects

Q2: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?
A Testing finds the cause of defects while debugging fixes the cause of defects
B Testing determines that defects exist while debugging removes defects
C Testing causes failures while debugging fixes failures
D Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity
Correct Answer:
D : Testing is a negative activity while debugging is a positive activity

Q3: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is one of the principles of testing. Which of the following is an example of addressing this principle in practice?
A Explaining that it is not possible for testing to show the absence of defects
B Modifying tests that cause no failures to ensure few defects remain
C Ensuring that no implementation defects remain in the delivered system
D Supporting the end users to perform acceptance testing
Correct Answer:
D : Supporting the end users to perform acceptance testing

The ‘absence-of-defects fallacy’ is concerned with the idea that ensuring correctness in accordance with the requirements (i.e., verifying the absence of implementation defects) does not guarantee user satisfaction with the system. To address this it is also necessary to validate that the system meets users' needs and expectations, fulfills business objectives, and outperforms competing systems.

Q4: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Which TWO of the following test activities are MOST likely to involve the application of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning?
A Test execution
B Test implementation
C Test monitoring
D Test design
Correct Answer:
D : Test design

Given the following description of test analysis:
To identify the features that require testing, the test basis is analyzed and defined as test conditions, which are then prioritized along with related risks. The systematic identification of test conditions as coverage items often involves using test techniques both during test analysis and as part of the test design activity.
From the above description, it can be seen that test techniques are often used in the test analysis and test design activities. Boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning are test techniques.

Q5: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Given the following testware:

1. Coverage items
2. Change requests
3. Test execution schedule
4. Prioritized test conditions

And the following test activities

A. Test analysis
B. Test design
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion

Which of the following BEST shows the testware produced by the activities?
A 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
B 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
C 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A
D 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A
Correct Answer:
C : 1B, 2D, 3C, 4A

Considering each of the listed test activities and their output testware:
A. Test analysis - prioritized test conditions (4) (e.g., acceptance criteria), and defect reports for defects identified in the test basis
B. Test design - prioritized test cases, test charters, coverage items (1), test data requirements, and test environment requirements
C. Test implementation - test procedures, automated test scripts, test suites, test data, test execution schedule (3), and test environment elements such as stubs, drivers, simulators, and service virtualizations
D. Test completion - test completion report, documented lessons learned, action items for improvement, and change requests (2) (as product backlog items)

Q6: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Which of the following statements about the different testing roles is MOST likely to be CORRECT?
A In Agile software development, the test management role is the primary responsibility of the team, while the testing role is primarily the responsibility of a single individual from outside the team
B In Agile software development, test management activities that span multiple teams are handled by a test manager outside the team, while some test management tasks are handled by the team itself
C The testing role is primarily responsible for test monitoring and control, while the test management role is primarily responsible for test planning and test completion
D The test management role is primarily responsible for test analysis and test design, while the testing role is primarily responsible for test implementation and execution
Correct Answer:
B : In Agile software development, test management activities that span multiple teams are handled by a test manager outside the team, while some test management tasks are handled by the team itself

Q7: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Which of the following is an advantage of the whole-team approach?
A Teams with no testers
B Specialist team members
C Larger team sizes
D Improved team dynamics
Correct Answer:
D : Improved team dynamics

Q8: Chapter: 1 - Fundamentals of Testing
Which of the following statements about the independence of testing is CORRECT?
A Independent testers will find defects due to their different technical perspective from developers, but their independence may lead to an adversarial relationship with the developers
B Testers from outside the developer’s team are more independent than testers from within the team, but the testers from within the team are more likely to be blamed for delays in product release
C Developers’ familiarity with their own code means they only find a few defects in it, however their shared software background with testers means these defects would also be found by the testers
D Independent testing requires testers who are outside the developer’s team and ideally from outside the organization, however these testers find it difficult to understand the application domain
Correct Answer:
A : Independent testers will find defects due to their different technical perspective from developers, but their independence may lead to an adversarial relationship with the developers

Q9: Chapter: 2 - Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
Which of the following is a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?
A For each test level, there is a corresponding development level
B For every software test activity, there is a corresponding user activity
C For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity
D For each test objective, there is a corresponding development objective
Correct Answer:
C : For every software development activity, there is a corresponding test activity

Q10: Chapter: 2 - Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
A Integration Test-Driven Development
B System Test-Driven Development
C Acceptance Test-Driven Development
D Component Test-Driven Development
Correct Answer:
C : Acceptance Test-Driven Development

Which of the following is an example of a test-first approach to development?

Q11: Chapter: 2 - Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
Which of the following provides the BEST description of the shift-left approach?
A When available, testers are trained to perform tasks early in the SDLC to allow more test activities to be automated later in the SDLC
B Where cost-effective, test activities are moved to be performed earlier in the software development lifecycle (SDLC) to reduce the total cost of quality by reducing the number of defects found later in the SDLC
C When agreed by the developers, manual activities on the left-hand side of the test process are automated to support the principle of ‘early testing saves time and money’
D When they have spare time available, testers are required to automate tests for regression testing, starting with component tests and component integration tests
Correct Answer:
B : Where cost-effective, test activities are moved to be performed earlier in the software development lifecycle (SDLC) to reduce the total cost of quality by reducing the number of defects found later in the SDLC

Q12: Chapter: 2 - Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of a retrospective?
A Test efficiency improves by speeding up the configuration of test environments through automation
B The quality of future test objects improves by identifying improvements in development practices
C End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved
D Automated test scripts are enhanced through feedback from developers
Correct Answer:
C : End users’ understanding of the development and test processes is improved

Q13: Chapter: 2 - Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed if the testing is focused on validation and is not being performed by testers?
A Acceptance testing
B Component integration testing
C Component testing
D System integration testing
Correct Answer:
A : Acceptance testing

Q14: Chapter: 2 - Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle
The navigation system software has been updated due to it suggesting routes that break traffic laws, such as driving the wrong way down one-way streets. Which of the following BEST describes the testing that will be performed?
A Only regression testing
B Only confirmation testing
C Confirmation testing then regression testing
D Regression testing then confirmation testing
Correct Answer:
C : Confirmation testing then regression testing

Q15: Chapter: 3 - Static Testing
Given the following example defects:

i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high
Which of the following BEST identifies example defects that could be found by static testing (rather than dynamic testing)?
A i, ii, iv
B i, iii, iv
C ii, v
D iii, v
Correct Answer:
B : i, iii, iv

Considering each of the listed example defects:
i. Two different parts of the design specification disagree due to the complexity of the design – this is an example of a specification defect, which includes inconsistencies, ambiguities, contradictions, omissions, inaccuracies, and duplications, which can most easily be found by static testing
ii. A response time is too long and so makes users lose patience – this is an example of a response time defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the response time, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing
iii. A path in the code cannot be reached during execution - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
iv. A variable is declared but never subsequently used in the program - this is an example of a coding defect, which includes variables with undefined values, undeclared variables, duplicated or unreachable code, and excessive code complexity, which can most easily be found by static testing
v. The amount of memory needed by the program to generate a report is too high – this is an example of a performance defect, which can only be detected in practice by executing the program and measuring the memory used, which can most easily be found by dynamic testing

Q16: Chapter: 3 - Static Testing
Which of the following is a benefit of early and frequent stakeholder feedback?
A It ensures business stakeholders understand user requirements
B End users are told which requirements will not be implemented prior to release
C Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier
D It allows product owners to change their requirements as often as they want
Correct Answer:
C : Changes to requirements are understood and implemented earlier

Q17: Chapter: 3 - Static Testing
Given the following review types:

1. Technical review
2. Informal review
3. Inspection
4. Walkthrough

And the following descriptions:

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve
B. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement
D. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output


Which of the following BEST matches the review types and the descriptions?
A 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
B 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
C 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
D 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B
Correct Answer:
D : 1A, 2D, 3C, 4B

Considering each of the listed review types:
1. Technical review - This type of review is performed by technically qualified reviewers and led by a moderator. The objectives are to gain consensus and make decisions on technical problems while also evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies
2. Informal review - The main objective is to detect anomalies. The process is not defined and does not require formal documented output
3. Inspection - This is the most formal review type, and it follows the complete generic review process. The primary objective is to find the most anomalies, and other objectives include evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and collecting metrics that can be used to enhance the software development life cycle (SDLC), including the inspection process. The author cannot act as the review leader or scribe
4. Walkthrough - Led by the author, this type of review serves various objectives such as evaluating quality and building confidence in the work product, educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas, motivating and enabling authors to improve, and detecting anomalies. Reviewers might perform an individual review before the walkthrough, but this is not mandatory

A. Includes objectives such as gaining consensus, generating new ideas, and motivating authors to improve (A)
B. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it generates no formal documented output (D)
C. The main objective is detecting potential defects and it requires metrics collection to support process improvement (C)
D. Includes objectives such as educating reviewers, gaining consensus, generating new ideas and detecting potential defects (B)

Q18: Chapter: 3 - Static Testing
Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?
A Ensure management participate as reviewers
B Plan to cover one document per review
C Split large work products into smaller parts
D Set reviewer evaluation as an objective
Correct Answer:
C : Split large work products into smaller parts

Q19: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
What is the MAIN difference between black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques?
A The software development lifecycle (SDLC) in which the test technique can be used
B The test object
C The test basis
D The test level at which the test technique is used
Correct Answer:
C : The test basis

Q20: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
You are testing a PIN validator, which accepts valid PINs and rejects invalid PINs. A PIN is a sequence of digits. A PIN is valid if it consists of four digits, at least two of which are different. You have identified the following valid equivalence partitions:
Variable: PIN code length
- The partition “length correct” - four-digit PINs
- The partition “length incorrect” - PINs with length other than 4 Variable: Number of different digits
- The partition “number of different digits correct” - PINs with at least two different digits
- The partition “number of different digits incorrect” - PINs with all digits being the same

Which of the following is a MINIMUM set of input test data that covers all identified equivalence partitions?
A 1234, 12345, 1
B 12345, 1234
C 1, 1234
D 111, 1111, 1112
Correct Answer:
C : 1, 1234

Q21: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
W A developer was asked to implement the following business rule:

`INPUT: value (integer number)
IF (value ≤ 100 OR value ≥ 200) THEN write “value incorrect”
ELSE write “value OK”`

You design the test cases using 2-value boundary value analysis.
Which of the following sets of test inputs achieves the greatest coverage?
A 101, 150, 199, 200
B 98, 99, 100, 101
C 100, 150, 200, 201
D 99, 100, 200, 201
Correct Answer:
A : 101, 150, 199, 200

The equivalence partitions are: {…, 99, 100}, {101, 102, …, 198, 199}, {200, 201, …}.
Thus, there are 4 boundary values, which are: 100, 101, 199 and 200.

In 2-value BVA, for each boundary value there are two coverage items (the boundary value and its closest neighbor belonging to the adjacent partition). As the closest neighbors are also boundary values in the adjacent partition, then there are just four coverage items.

Q22: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
You are working on a project to develop a system to analyze driving test results. You have been asked to design test cases based on the following decision table. (see table)


What test data will show that there are contradictory rules in the decision table?
Question Attachment
A C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = F
B C1 = T, C2 = F, C3 = T
C C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F
D C1 = T, C2 = T, C3 = T and C1 = F, C2 = T, C3 = T
Correct Answer:
C : C1 = F, C2 = F, C3 = F

Q23: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
You are designing test cases based on the following state transition diagram (see diagram)

What is the MINIMUM number of test cases required to achieve 100% valid transitions coverage?
Question Attachment
A 5
B 2
C 6
D 3
Correct Answer:
D : 3

The following three transitions:

“REQUESTING -> CONFIRMED”
“WAITING LIST -> CONFIRMED”
“WAITING LIST -> END”

cannot appear in the same test case, which suggests that at least three test cases are required. All the other transitions can appear in combination with one or more of these three transitions, so we need a minimum of three test cases. In fact, only three sequences are possible:
TC1: START (Room request)  REQUESTING (Available)  CONFIRMED (Pay) => END
TC2: START (Room request)  REQUESTING (Not available)  WAITING LIST (Available) => CONFIRMED (Pay)  END
TC3: START (Room request)  REQUESTING (Not available)  WAITING LIST (Cancel) => END

Q24: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
You want to apply branch testing to the code represented by the following control flow graph. (see graph)

How many coverage items do you need to test?
Question Attachment
A 8
B 7
C 4
D 2
Correct Answer:
A : 8

In branch testing the coverage items are branches, which are represented by the edges of a control flow graph. There are 8 edges in the control flow graph.

How many coverage items do you need to test?

Q25: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
How can white-box testing be useful in support of black-box testing?
A Branch testing subsumes black-box test techniques, so achieving full branch coverage guarantees achieving full coverage of any black-box technique
B White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests
C White-box coverage analysis can help testers identify unreachable fragments of the source code
D White-box test techniques can provide coverage items for black-box techniques
Correct Answer:
B : White-box coverage measures can help testers evaluate black-box tests in terms of the code coverage achieved by these black-box tests

Q26: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
Consider the following list:
- Correct input not accepted
- Incorrect input accepted
- Wrong output format
- Division by zero

What test technique is MOST PROBABLY used by the tester who uses this list when performing testing?
A Fault attack
B Checklist-based testing
C Exploratory testing
D Boundary value analysis
Correct Answer:
A : Fault attack

Q27: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
Which of the following BEST describes how using checklist-based testing can result in increased coverage?
A Checklists can be automated, so each time an automated test execution covers the checklist items, it results in additional coverage
B Each checklist item should be tested separately and independently, so the elements cover different areas of the software
C Checklist items can be defined at a sufficiently low level of detail, so the tester can implement and execute detailed test cases based on these items
D Two testers designing and executing tests based on the same high-level checklist items will typically perform the testing in slightly different ways
Correct Answer:
D : Two testers designing and executing tests based on the same high-level checklist items will typically perform the testing in slightly different ways

Q28: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
Which of the following provides the BEST example of a scenario-oriented acceptance criterion?
A The website must comply with the ICT Accessibility 508 Standards and ensure that all content is accessible to users with disabilities
B IF (contain(product(23).Name, cart.products())) THEN return FALSE
C When a customer adds an item to their cart and proceeds to checkout, they should be prompted to log in or create an account if they haven’t already done so
D The application must allow users to delete their account and all associated data upon request
Correct Answer:
C : When a customer adds an item to their cart and proceeds to checkout, they should be prompted to log in or create an account if they haven’t already done so

Q29: Chapter: 4 - Test Analysis and Design
You are using acceptance test-driven development and designing test cases based on the following user story:

`As a Regular or Special user, I want to be able to use my electronic floor card, to access specific floors.
Acceptance Criteria:
AC1: Regular users have access to floors 1 to 3
AC2: Floor 4 is only accessible to Special users
AC3: Special users have all the access rights of Regular users`

Which test case is the MOST reasonable one to test AC3?
A Check that a Special user can access floor 5
B Check that a Regular user cannot access floor 4
C Check that a Special user can access floors 1, 2 and 3
D Check that a Regular user can access floors 1 and 3
Correct Answer:
C : Check that a Special user can access floors 1, 2 and 3

Q30: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a test plan?
A To explain why system integration testing will be excluded from testing, although the test strategy requires this test level
B To define as exit criteria from the component test level that “100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage must be achieved”
C To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests
D To describe what fields the test progress report shall contain and what should be the form of this report
Correct Answer:
C : To define test data and expected results for component tests and component integration tests

Q31: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
At the beginning of each iteration, the team estimates the amount of work (in person-days) they will need to complete during the iteration.

Let E(n) be the estimated amount of work for iteration n, and let A(n) be the actual amount of work done in iteration n. From the third iteration, the team uses the following estimation model based on extrapolation: (𝐸(𝑛)=3∗𝐴(𝑛−1)+𝐴(𝑛−2)) / 4

The graph shows the estimated and actual amount of work for the first four iterations. (see graph)

What is the estimated amount of work for iteration #5?
Question Attachment
A 10.5 person-days
B 8.25 person-days
C 9.4 person-days
D 6.5 person-days
Correct Answer:
D : 6.5 person-days

From the graph we have:
A(4)=6 and A(3)=8 (the last two gray boxes).
From the formula we obtain:
E(5) = (3*A(4) + A(3)) / 4 = (3*6+8) / 4 = 26 / 4 = 6.5 person-days

Q32: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
You are preparing a test execution schedule for executing seven test cases TC 1 to TC 7.

The following figure includes the priorities of these test cases (1=highest priority, 3 = lowest priority).

The figure also shows the dependencies between test cases using arrows.
For instance, the arrow from TC 4 to TC 5 means that TC 5 can only be executed if TC 4 was previously executed
(See graph)

Which test case should be executed sixth?
Question Attachment
A TC 6
B TC 2
C TC 5
D TC 3
Correct Answer:
D : TC 3

We want to run test cases according to their priorities, but we also need to consider the dependencies.
If we only consider priorities, we want to first run TC 5 and TC 7 (highest priority), then TC 1, TC 3, and TC 4, and finally TC 2 and TC 6 (lowest priority).
However, in order to run TC 7, we need to first run TC 4.
In order to run TC 5, we need to run TC 4 and TC 2, but TC 2 is blocked by TC 1, which should be run prior to TC 2.
So, in order to run priority 1 test cases as early as possible, the first five test cases should be: TC 4 - TC 7 - TC 1 - TC 2 - TC 5.
Next, we need to run TC 3, because it has higher priority than TC 6.
Thus the full schedule will be TC 4 – TC 7 – TC 1 – TC 2 – TC 5 – TC 3 – TC 6.
So, the sixth test case will be TC 3.

Q33: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
What does the test pyramid model show?
A That tests may depend on other tests
B That tests may have different priorities
C That tests may require different coverage criteria
D That tests may have different granularity
Correct Answer:
D : That tests may have different granularity

Q34: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
What is the relationship between the testing quadrants, test levels and test types?
A Testing quadrants assign the test types that can be performed to the test levels
B Testing quadrants describe the degree of granularity of individual test types performed at each test level
C Testing quadrants represent particular combinations of test levels and test types, defining their location in the software development lifecycle
D Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting specific stakeholders
Correct Answer:
D : Testing quadrants group test levels and test types by several criteria such as targeting specific stakeholders

Q35: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
Which of the following is an example of how product risk analysis may influence the thoroughness and scope of testing?
A Continuous risk monitoring allows us to identify emerging risk as soon as possible
B Risk identification allows us to implement risk mitigation activities and reduce the risk level
C The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing
D Risk analysis allows us to derive coverage items
Correct Answer:
C : The assessed risk level helps us to select the rigor of testing

Q36: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
Which of the following activities in the test process makes the MOST use of test progress reports?
A Test analysis
B Test planning
C Test completion
D Test design
Correct Answer:
C : Test completion

Q37: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
Which of the following is NOT an example of how configuration management supports testing?
A All identified defects have an assigned status
B All commits to the repository are uniquely identified and version controlled
C All changes in the test environment elements are tracked
D All requirement specifications are referenced unambiguously in test plans
Correct Answer:
A : All identified defects have an assigned status

Q38: Chapter: 5 - Managing the Test Activities
Consider the following defect report for a web-based shopping application:

`Application: WebShop v0.99
Defect: Login button not working
Steps to Reproduce:
Launch the website Click on the login button
Expected result: The user should be redirected to the login page. Actual result: The login button does not respond when clicked.
Severity: High Priority: Urgent`

What is the MOST important information that is missing from this report?
A Impact on the interests of stakeholders
B Name of the tester and date of the report
C Identification of the test object
D Test environment elements and their version numbers
Correct Answer:
D : Test environment elements and their version numbers

Q39: Chapter: 6 - Test Tools
Tools from which of the following categories help with the organization of test cases, detected defects and configuration management?
A Test design and implementation tools
B Defect management tools
C Test management tools
D Test execution and coverage tools
Correct Answer:
C : Test management tools

Q40: Chapter: 6 - Test Tools
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test automation?
A The increase in test execution times available with higher processing power
B The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability
C The achievement of increased coverage through more objective assessment
D The capability of generating test cases without access to the test basis
Correct Answer:
B : The prevention of human errors through greater consistency and repeatability